Current Affairs is one of the important pillar of the IAS Exam Preparation because it helps in the IAS Prelims Exam, IAS Main Exam, and in the IAS Interview also. It also helps inthe State PCS Exams. Following are some of the questions:
1. Under which of the Article, the constitution of India ensures freedom to manage religious affairs
a. Article 25
b. Article 26
c. Article 28
d. Article 30
Answer. b
Explanation: Article 26 states that Subject to public order, morality and health, every religious denomination or any section thereof shall have the right—
(a) to establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes;
(b) to manage its own affairs in matters of religion; Prohibition of employment of children in factories, etc. Freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and propagation of religion. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour. Freedom to manage religious affairs.
(c) to own and acquire movable and immovable property; and (d) to administer such property in accordance with law.
Article 26(b) guarantees the right of religious denominations to manage their own affairs in matters of religion, and Article 26(d) allows the denomination to administer property in accordance with law (i.e., subordinating the right to manage property to State-made law).
2. Uniform Civil Code is mentioned Directive principals of State Policy under the Article
a. Article 37
b. Article 39
c. Article 42
d. Article 44
Answer . d
Explanation: Uniform civil code enshrines the concept of creating a common civil law for all citizens irrespective of their religion, faith and practices.
UCC is separate from public law and mostly aims to cover issues like maintenance, inheritance, adoption, marriage, divorce etc. Though India at present provides for separate personal laws and the above stated issues are regulated according to them, the constitution however has made enunciation of UCC as a Directive Principle of State Policy. This means that the State in its governance is to comply with the said directive.
Constitutional Provisions
Article 44 of the constitution of India provides that "The state shall endeavor to secure for the citizens a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India". The premise behind Article 44 is that there is necessarily no connection between religion and personal law in a civilized society and hence state can push for uniform civil code for all its citizens but keeping in mind that basic secular tenets of the constitution are not violated, whatever needs to be done has to done harmoniously. The basic feature of secularism enshrined in the preamble and Article 44 need harmonious interpretation.
The Supreme Court in Pannalal Bansilal v. state of Andhra Pradesh observed –
“in a pluralist society like India, where people have faith in their respective religious beliefs or tenets propounded by different religions or their offshoots, the founding fathers, while making the constitution were confronted with problems to unify and integrate people of India professing different religious faiths, born in different castes, creeds or subsections in the society, speaking different languages and different dialects in different regions and provided a secular constitution to integrate all sections of the society as a united Bharat. The Directive Principles of State Policy of the constitution themselves visualize diversity and attempt to foster unity among people of different faiths. A uniform law, though it is highly desirable, enactment thereof in one go perhaps may be counter-productive to unity and integrity of the nation. In a democracy governed by the rule of law, gradual progressive change and order should be brought about. Making law or amendment to a law is a slow process and legislature attempts to remedy where the need is felt most acute. It would, therefore be inexpedient and incorrect to think that all laws have to be made uniformly applicable to all people in one go. The mischief of defect which is most acute can be remedied by process of law at stages.
3. Consider the following:
I. The Setu Bharatam programme aims to make all National Highways free of railway level crossings by 2021.
II. Under the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Amendment Bill 2015 Once the bill becomes law, the decision to try a juvenile 16 years or older as an adult will be taken by the Juvenile Justice Board, which will have a judicial magistrate and two social workers as members. If the board decides against it, the juvenile will be sent for rehabilitation.
Select the correct option
a. I and II are correct
b. I is correct but II I not correct
c. I is incorrect but II is correct
d. Both I and II are incorrect
Answer. c
Explanation: The Setu Bharatam programme aims to make all National Highways free of railway level crossings by 2019.
Once the bill becomes law, the decision to try a juvenile 16 years or older as an adult will be taken by the Juvenile Justice Board, which will have a judicial magistrate and two social workers as members. If the board decides against it, the juvenile will be sent for rehabilitation. Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Amendment Bill 2015 has been passed by the Rajya Sabha in December 2015. It was introduced in Parliament last year after public outrage because one of the offenders in the 2012 gang rape case was a few months short of 18 years of age. The bill had already been passed by the Lok Sabha in May. It now needs the President's assent to become law.
4. Consider the following:
I. The Convention on Supplementary Compensation (CSC), which sets parameters on a nuclear operator’s financial liability, was signed on 12th September 1997. It has been framed in consistent with the principles of Vienna Convention on Civil Liability for Nuclear Damage (1963) and the Paris Convention on Third Party Liability in the Field of Nuclear Energy (1960).
II. The Convention stipulates the establishment of an international fund to increase the monies available for compensation of victims.
III. The system of this Convention shall apply to nuclear damage for which an operator of a nuclear installation used for peaceful purposes situated in the territory of a Contracting Party is liable and not for the defence purpose installations.
Select the correct option from below
a. I and III are correct
b. II and III are correct
c. I and III are correct
d. All are Correct
Answer d.
Explanation: The Convention on Supplementary Compensation (CSC) is an international nuclear liability regime governed by International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA). The convention, which sets parameters on a nuclear operator’s financial liability, was signed on 12th September 1997. It has been framed in consistent with the principles of Vienna Convention on Civil Liability for Nuclear Damage (1963) and the Paris Convention on Third Party Liability in the Field of Nuclear Energy (1960). It desires to establish a worldwide liability regime to supplement and enhance these measures with a view to increasing the amount of compensation for nuclear damage. It also recognises further that such a worldwide liability regime would encourage regional and global co-operation to promote a higher level of nuclear safety in accordance with the principles of international partnership and solidarity. It provides a uniform framework for channelling liability and providing speedy compensation after the nuclear accident.
5. Consider the following regarding the Real Estate Bill
I. Home owners can verify the quality of the builders since the bill now makes it mandatory for developers to provide details of projects launched in the past five years, both completed or under -construction. These will also be available on the regulator's website.
II. Strict guidelines for developers to put up advertisement come under the scanner as promoter can no longer put superficial designs or photos of a uncompleted project to attract buyers if the final project does not match the photographs. In a scenario where both doesn’t match, the builder has to return the payment with interest to buyers.
Select the correct option from below
a. I is correct
b. II is correct
c. I and II are correct
d. Both are incorrect
Answer. c
Explanation:
The major highlights of this bill are:
1) All the projects must get the approval and the promoter has to provide all the details like approvals, names of developer and promoter, roadmap of project, time frame for project completion on their website and register with the concern authority.
2) The problem of builders diverting the funds collected from house buyers and use it for some other projects. And this is been tackled by asking the Developer to deposit 70% of the amount in escrow account to be used in the same project which shall be used for construction and land for that project. It would ensure that major part is completed in given time period. Monitoring and ensuring timely completion will be under the aegis of state-level Real Estate Regulatory Authorities.
3) Strict guidelines for developers to put up advertisement come under the scanner as promoter can no longer put superficial designs or photos of a uncompleted project to attract buyers if the final project does not match the photographs. In a scenario where both doesn’t match, the builder has to return the payment with interest to buyers.
4) Home owners can verify the quality of the builders since the bill now makes it mandatory for developers to provide details of projects launched in the past five years, both completed or under -construction. These will also be available on the regulator's website.
