2 years ago It had 37 years of prelims questions compiled at one place . Though the pdf was roughly prepared it proved to be amazing . This year all year long we were telling aspirants to read previous year questions UPSC Repeates Questions . Now the moment of truth has arrived . This year Paper was difficult for many people but not for the ones who went though previous year questions rigorously .
We ran An online test series from which 35 Questions were asked : Check here
Below are the 23 Questions Which were asked in previous year prelims
UPSC 2017
Mediterranean Sea is a border of which of the following countries?
1. Jordan
2. Iraq
3. Lebanon
4. Syria
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only
UPSC 2015
Which one of the following countries of South-West
Asia does not open out to the Mediterranean Sea?
[2015-I]
(a) Syria (b) Jordan
(c) Lebanon (d) lsrael
UPSC 1984
Grenada is situated in
(a) Pacific Ocean
(b) Indian Ocean
(c) Caribbean Sea
(d) Mediterranean Sea
UPSC 2005
Where are the Balearic Islands located?
(a) Mediterranean Sea (b) Black Sea
(c) Baltic Sea (d) North Sea
In which one of the following is Malta located?[2008]
(a) Baltic Sea (b) Mediterranean Sea
(c) Black Sea (d) North Sea
UPSC 2014
Turkey is located between [2014 - I]
(a) Black Sea and Caspian Sea
(b) Black Sea and Mediterranean Sea
(c) Gulf of Suez and Mediterranean Sea
(d) Gulf of Aqaba and Dead Sea
This Question can be answered from our trick videos also
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UPSC 2017
For election to the Lok Sabha, a nomination paper can be filed by
(a) anyone residing in India.
(b) a resident of the constituency from which the election is to be contested.
(c) any citizen of India whose name appears in the electoral roll of a constituency.
(d) any citizen of India.
UPSC 1979
The below question eliminates option a and d and choice b is an obviously wrong choice so ..
A candidate to become a member of Lok Sabha should not be less than
(a) 21 years
(b) 25 years
(c) 30 years
(d) 35 years
We ran An online test series from which 35 Questions were asked : Check here
UPSC 2017
Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a standard criterion for
(a) Measuring oxygen levels in blood
(b) Computing oxygen levels in forest ecosystems
(c) Pollution assay in aquatic ecosystems
(d) Assessing oxygen levels in high altitude regions
The water pollution in river is measured by the
dissolved amount of [1998]
(a) Chlorine (b) Ozone
(c) Nitrogen (d) Oxygen
(d) Water pollution in river or any other water body is measured by amount of dissolved oxygen. Water pollution can be measured on the basis of parameters like dirtyness, change in texture, total suspended solid and other important factors like,
1. Decrease in dissolved oxygen (DO) (concentration of dissolved oxygen in water samples).
2. Increase in BOD, (Biochemical Oxygen Demand) it is a chemical procedure for determining the amount of dissolved oxygen needed by aerobic biological organisms in a body of water to break down organic material present in a given water sample at certain temperature over a specific time period.
3. Increase in COD, (Chemical Oxygen Demand) test is commonly used to indirectly measure the amount of organic compounds in water.
We ran An online test series from which 35 Questions were asked : Check here
UPSC 2017
The main advantage of the parliamentary form of government is that
(a) the executive and legislature work independently.
(b) it provides continuity of policy and is more efficient.
(c) the executive remains responsible to the legislature.
(d) the head of the government cannot be changed without election.
Answer c
UPSC 1987
India has Parliamentary democracy system because
(a) Members of the Lok Sabha are elected by the public
(b) Council of Ministers is responsible to the Legislature
(c) Of distribution of power between the Centre and the States
(d) Of a single constitutional framework
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UPSC 2017
The painting of Bodhisattva Padmapani is one of the most famous and oft-illustrated paintings at
(a) Ajanta
(b) Badami
(c) Bagh
(d) Ellora
UPSC 1984
Question asked on Ajanta Paintings Ajanta paintings depict [1984]
(a) Ramayana
(b) Mahabharata
(c) Jatakas [ stories about buddha]
(d) Panchatantra
UPSC 1983
Match the columns : [1983]
(A) Amarnath (1) Buddhist caves
(B) Rock cut temples (2) Jain saint
(C) Ajanta (3) Hindu shrine
(D) Bahubali (4) Mahabalipuram
A B C D
(a) 3 4 2 1
(b) 4 3 1 2
(c) 3 4 1 2
(d) 4 3 2 1
C
UPSC 1992
Fresco paintings in the Ajanta Caves were done, while which of the following dynasties was flourishing?[1992]
(a) Guptas
(b) Sungas
(c) Kanvas
(d) Mauryas
A
UPSC 2010
There are only two known examples of cave paintings of the Gupta period in ancient India. One of these is paintings of Ajanta caves. Where is the other surviving example of Gupta paintings? [2010]
(a) Bagh caves (b) Ellora caves
(c) Lomas Rishi cave (d) Nasik caves
UPSC 2013
Consider the following historical places: [2013 - I]
1. Ajanta Caves 2. Lepakshi Temple
3. Sanchi Stupa
Which of the above places is/are also known for mural paintings?
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None
UPSC 2014
With reference to the Indian history of art and culture, consider the following pairs : [2014 - I]
Famous work of Sculpture Site
1. A grand image of Buddha's : Ajanta Mahaparinirvana with numerous celestial musicians above and the sorrowful figures of his followers below
2. A huge image of Varaha : Mount Abu Avatar (boar incarnation) of Vishnu, as he rescues Goddess Earth from the deep and chaotic waters, sculpted on rock
3. “Arjuna’s Penance”/ : Mamallapuram “Descent of Ganga” sculpted on the surface of huge boulders
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans c
1 is correctly matched because Parinirvana of the Buddha in Cave 17 of Ajanta, with numerous celestial musicians above and the sorrowful figures of his followers below, is one of the grandest and yet most delicately expressive scenes ever made in stone. 2 is wrong because huge image of Varaha Avatar of Vishnu, as herescues Goddess Earth from the deepand chaotic waters, sculpted on rock is found in Mamallapuram. 3 is right because Arjuna's Penance “Descent of Ganga” sculpted on thesurface of huge boulders is found in Mamallapuram
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UPSC 2017
Consider the following statements :
1. The Election Commission of India is a five-member body.
2. Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections.
3. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognised political parties.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 3 only
UPSC 1995
Which one of the following is correct In respect of the commencement of the election process in India ?
|
A.
|
The recommendation for election is made by the government and the notification for election is issued by the Election Commission
|
B.
|
The recommendation for election is made by the Election Commission and the notification for election is issued by the Home Ministry at the Centre and Home Departments in the States
|
C.
|
The recommendation for election is made by the Election Commission and the notification for election is issued by the President and Governors of the States concerned
|
D.
|
Both the exercises of making a recommendation for election and that of issuing a notification in respect of it are done by the Election Commission
|
|
UPSC 1994
Which of the following is/are among the functions of the Election Commission of India ? [1994]
I. Conduct of election for the posts of the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker, Lok Sabha and the Deputy Chairman, Rajya Sabha.
II. Conduct of election to the Corporations and Municipalities.
III. Deciding on all doubts and disputes arising out of the elections.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below.
Codes :
(a) I and II
(b) I and III
(c) II and III
(d) None of these
Consider the following tasks: [2004]
1. Superintendence, direction and conduct of free
and fair elections
2. Preparation of electoral rolls for all elections to
the Parliament, state Legislatures and the Office
of the President and the Vice-President
3. Giving recognition to political, parties and
allotting election symbols to political parties and
individuals contesting the election.
4. Proclamation of final verdict in case of election
disputes
Which of the above are the functions of the Election
Commission of India?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 4
(a) The High Court (and not the Election
Commission) is the final authority to give a final
verdict in case of election disputes. In the alternative
special election benches may be constituted in high
courts and earmarked exclusively for the disposal of
election petitions and disputes.
55. Consider the following statements: [2012 - I]
1. Union Territories are not represented in the Rajya
Sabha.
2. It is within the purview of the Chief Election
Commissioner to adjudicate the election disputes.
3. According to the Constitution of India, the
Parliament consists of the Lok Sabha and the
Rajya Sabha only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) None
(d) None of the above statements are correct
(i) Union Territories (Delhi and Pondicherry) are
represented in the Rajya Sabha.
(ii) It is not within the purview of the Chief Election
Commissioner to adjudicate election disputes. It is the
Supreme Court and High Court which look into the
disputes.
(iii) According to the Constitution of India, the
Parliament consists of the Lok Sabha the Rajya Sabha
and the President of India.
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UPSC 2017
In India, if a species of tortoise is declared protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, what does it imply ?
(a) It enjoys the same level of protection as the tiger.
(b) It no longer exists in the wild, a few individuals are under captive protection; and now it is impossible to prevent its extinction.
(c) It is endemic to a particular region of India.
(d) Both (b) and (c) stated above are correct in this context.
Answer. A
With reference to 'dugong', a mammal found in India,
which of the following statements is/an; correct?
[2015-I]
1. It is a herbivorous marine animal.
2. It is found along the entire coast of India.
3. It is given legal protection under Schedule I of the
Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 only
(c) The dugong is a medium-sized marine mammal.
Dugong is listed under schedule 1 of India Wildlife
Protection Act, 1972. In 2008, a MoU was signed
between the Ministry of Environment and Forests and
the Government of India, in order to conserve
dugongs. In fact the highest level of legal protection is
accorded to dugongs in India
With reference to ‘Eco-Sensitive Zones’, which of
the following statements is/are correct? [2014 - I]
1. Eco-Sensitive Zones are the areas that are
declared under the Wildlife (Protection) Act,
1972.
2. The purpose of the declaration of Eco-Sensitive
Zones is to prohibit all kinds of human activities
in those zones except agriculture.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
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UPSC 2017
In India, Judicial Review implies
(a) the power of the Judiciary to pronounce upon the constitutionality of laws and executive orders.
(b) the power of the Judiciary to question the wisdom of the laws enacted by the Legislatures.
(c) the power of the Judiciary to review all the legislative enactments before they are assented to by the President.
(d) the power of the Judiciary to review its own judgements given earlier in similar or different cases.
Answer. a
The Indian parliamentary system is different from
the British parliamentary system in that India has:
[1998]
(a) both a real and a nominal executive
(b) system of collective responsibility
(c) bicameral legislature
(d) the system of judicial review
(d) Judicial review is one big difference. In India, the
judiciary system can take up an act passed by
parliament and has the power to nullify it. In Britain,
law passed by House of Commons can't be overturned
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UPSC 2017
With reference to Indian freedom struggle, consider the following events :
1. Mutiny in Royal Indian Navy
2. Quit India Movement launched
3. Second Round Table Conference What is the correct chronological sequence of the above events ?
(a) 1-2-3
(b) 2-1-3
(c) 3-2-1
(d) 3-1-2
What is the correct sequence of the following events?
[1998]
1. The August offer
2. The I.N.A trial
3. The Quit India Movement
4. The Royal Indian Naval Ratings' Revolt.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) 1, 3, 2, 4 (b) 3, 1, 2, 4
(c) 1, 3, 4, 2 (d) 3, 1, 4, 2
Our answer
(a) August Offer–1940; INA Trial–1945; Quit India
Movement–1942; Royal Indian Navy Ratings Revolt–
1946
Consider the following statements:
1. Lord Mountbatten was the Viceroy when the
Shimla conference took place.
2. Indian Navy Revolt, 1946 took place when the
Indian sailors in the Royal Indian Navy at
Bombay and Karachi rose against the
Government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?[2005]
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Assertion (A) :1983
In 1946 in Bombay the ratings of the Royal
Indian Navy rose in open
mutiny against the British.
Reason (R) :
The Royal Indian Navy joined the INA
(a) A and R both are incorrect
(b) A is correct but R is incorrect
(c) A and R are correct and R is the correct
explanation of A
(d) A and R are correct but R is not the
correct explanation of A.
The following are the events in national
Movement [1983]
I. Champaran Satyagraha
II. Non-Cooperation Movement
III. Quit India Movement
IV. Dandi March
The correct chronological order is
(a) I, II, IV, III
(b) II, I, III, IV
(c) III, II, I, IV
(d) II, III, I, IV
Quit India Movement was launched in 1983
(a) 1936
(b) 1941
(c) 1942
(d) 1947
Which of the following events is not correct
?
(a) Simon Commission—1927
(b) Salt Satyagraha—1930
(c) Gandhi-lrwin Pact—1931
(d) Quit India Movement—1941
Consider the following statements:
1. In the First Round Table Conference, Dr.
Ambedkar demanded separate electorates for the
depressed classes.
2. In the Poona Act, special provisions for
representation of the depressed people in the local
bodies and civil services were made.
3. The Indian National Congress did not take part
in the Third Round Table Conference.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 [2005]
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) First Round Table Conference was held from Nov,
1930 - Jan 1931. Second Round Table Conference was
held in Dec 1931 in London. Third Round Table
Conference was held from Nov 1932 - Dec 1932. Indian
National Congress did not participate in first and third
RTC. Poona Pact was signed by B.R. Ambedkar in
September, 1932. The pact abandoned separate
electorates for the depressed classes. But the seats
reserved for the depressed classes were increased in
provincial as well as Central legislatures.
The Second Round Table Conference was [1990]
held in
(a) 1930
(b) 1931
(c) 1932
(d)1935
b
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UPSC 2017
Which of the following are envisaged by the Right against Exploitation in the Constitution of India?
1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour
2. Abolition of untouchability
3. Protection of the interests of minorities
4. Prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
[ right against exploitation is under article 23 and 24 ]
[ Hence 2. Abolition of untouchability which is under article 17 is certainly not part of right against exploitation if you eleiminate 2 you can easily get the answer ]
See the below question from 2004 it will help you understand that Abolition of untouchability which is under article 17
Match List I (Articles of the Constitution of India) with
List II (Provision) and select the correct answer using
the codes given below the lists: [2004]
List-I List II
A. Article 14 1. The State shall not discriminate
against any citizen on grounds
only of religion, race, caste, sex
place of birth or any of term
B. Article 15 2. The State shall not deny to any
person equality before the law
or the equal protection of laws
within the territory of India
C. Article 16 3. ‘Untouchability’ is abolished
and its practice in any from is
forbidden
D. Article 17 4. There shall be equality of
opportunity for all citizens in
matters relating to employment
or appointment to any office
under the State
Codes:
(a) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3 (b) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
(c) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3 (d) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
2004
Which Article of the Constitution of India says, ‘No child below the age of fourteen years shall be employed to work in any factory or mine or engaged in any other hazardous employment’?
|
A.
|
Article 24
|
B.
|
Article 45
|
C.
|
Article 330
|
D.
|
Article 368
|
|
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UPSC 2017
Out of the following statements, choose the one that brings out the principle underlying the Cabinet form of Government:
(a) An arrangement for minimizing the criticism against the Government whose responsibilities are complex and hard to carry out to the satisfaction of all.
(b) A mechanism for speeding up the activities of the Government whose responsibilities are increasing day by day.
(c) A mechanism of parliamentary democracy for ensuring collective responsibility of the Government to the people.
(d) A device for strengthening the hands of the head of the Government whose hold over the people is in a state of decline.
In the context of India, which of the following principles
is/are implied institutionally in the parliamentary
government? [2013 - I]
1. Members of the Cabinet are Members of the
Parliament.
2. Ministers hold the office till they enjoy confidence
in the Parliament.
3. Cabinet is headed by the Head of the State.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
In a parliamentary system the executive is
Responsible [1979]
(a) Directly to the people
(b) To legislature
(c) To judiciary
(d) None of the above
In a Parliamentary System of Government [1985]
(a) The parliament is responsible to the
executive
(b) The parliament is responsible to the
judiciary
(c) The executive is responsible to the
parliament
(d) The judiciary is responsible to the
parliament
India has Parliamentary democracy system
Because [1987]
(a) Members of the Lok Sabha are elected
by the public
(b) Council of Ministers is responsible to the
Legislature
(c) Of distribution of power between the
Centre and the States
(d) Of a single constitutional framework
There is a Parliamentary System of Government in
India because the [2015-I]
(a) Lok Sabha is elected directly by the people
(b) Parliament can amend the Constitution
(c) Rajya Sabha cannot be dissolved
(d) Council of Ministers is responsible to the Lok
Sabha
We ran An online test series from which 35 Questions were asked : Check here
UPSC 2017
Which one of the following is not a feature of Indian federalism?
(a) There is an independent judiciary in India.
(b) Powers have been clearly divided between the Centre and the States.
(c) The federating units have been given unequal representation in the Rajya Sabha.
(d) It is the result of an agreement among the federating units.
India is a federal state because of 1987
(a) Dual Citizenship prevalent here
(b) Dual judiciary
(c) Share of power between the Centre and
the States
(d) Written Constitution
Which one of the following determines that
the Indian Constitution is Federal? [1994]
(a) A written and rigid Constitution
(b) An independent Judiciary
(c) Vesting of residuary powers with the
Centre
(d) Distribution of powers between the
Centre and the States
D
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UPSC 2017
The object of the Butler Committee of 1927 was to?
(a) Define the jurisdiction of the Central and Provincial Governments.
(b) Define the powers of the Secretary of State for India.
(c) Impose censorship on national press.
(d) Improve the relationship between the Government of India and the Indian States.
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer
using the codes given below the lists: [1997]
List-I List-II
A. Butler Committee 1. Jallianwala Bagh
Report massacre
B. Hurtog Committee 2. Relationship between
Report the Indian State
and the Paramount
Power
C. Hunter Inquiry 3. Working of Dyarchy as
Committee Report laid down in the
Montague-Chelmsford
Reforms
D. Muddiman 4. The growth of education
Committee Report in British India and
potentialities of its
further progress
Codes:
(a) A – 3; B – 2; C – 1; D – 4
(b) A – 1; B – 4; C – 2; D – 3
(c) A – 2; B – 1; C – 3; D – 4
(d) A – 2; B – 4; C – 1; D – 3
(d) Butler Committee - Relation between Indian
states & paramount power
Hurtog Committee - Growth of British India
education-its effects
Hunter Commission - Jallianwalabagh massacre
Muddiman Committee - Working of Diarchy as in
Montague Chelmsford reforms
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UPSC 2017
Which of the following statements is/are true of the Fundamental Duties of an Indian citizen?
1. A legislative process has been provided to enforce these duties.
2. They are correlative to legal duties.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Which of the following is/are among the Fundamental
Duties of citizens laid down in the Indian
Constitution? [2012 - I]
1. To preserve the rich heritage of our composite
culture
2. To protect the weaker sections from social
injustice
3. To develop the scientific temper and spirit of
inquiry
4. To strive towards excellence in all spheres of
individual and collective activity
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
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UPSC 2017
Which one of the following objectives is not embodied in the Preamble to the Constitution of India?
(a) Liberty of thought
(b) Economic liberty
(c) Liberty of expression
(d) Liberty of belief
In the following quotation,
“WE THE PEOPLE OF INDIA, having solemnly
esolved to constitute India into a Sovereign Socialist
Secular Democratic Republic and to secure to all its
citizens:
JUSTICE, social, economic and political; LIBERTY of
hought, expression, belief faith and worship;
EQUALITY of status and of opportunity: and to
promote among them all; FRATERNITY assuring the
dignity of the individual and the unity and the
ntegrity of the Nation.
n our Constituent Assembly this ‘X’ do hereby adopt,
enact and give to ourselves this Constitution.”,
X’ stands for: [1997]
a) twenty-sixth day of January, 1950
b) twenty-sixth day of November, 1949
c) twenty-sixth day of January, 1949
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UPSC 2017
The terms 'Event Horizon', 'Singularity', `String Theory' and 'Standard Model' are sometimes seen in the news in the context of
(a) Observation and understanding of the Universe
(b) Study of the solar and the lunar eclipses
(c) Placing satellites in the orbit of the Earth
(d) Origin and evolution of living organisms on the Earth
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer
using the codes given below the lists: [2001]
List-I (Characteristic) List-II (Particle)
A. Zero mass 1. Positron
B. Fractional charge 2. Neutrino
C. Fractional spin 3. Quark
D. Integral spin 4. Photon
Codes:
(a) A-2; B-3; C-1; D-4 (b) A-3; B-2; C-4; D-1
(c) A-2; B-3; C-4; D-1 (d) A-3; B-2; C-1; D-4
Ans
(a) The Standard Model of particle physics assumed
that neutrino are massless.
A quark is an elementary particle and a fundamental
constituent of matter. Quarks have fractional electric
charge values either –1/3 or +2/3 times the elementary
charge.
The positron or antielectron is the antiparticle or the
antimatter counterpart of the electron. The positron
has an electric charge of +1e, a spin of ½, and the same
mass as an electron.
In physics, a photon is an elementary particle. Spin of
a photon can be –1 or +1. In a classical view we can
say that one is spinning right and other to the left
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UPSC 2017
With reference to agriculture in India, how can the technique of `genome sequencing', often seen in the news, be used in the immediate future?
1. Genome sequencing can be used to identify genetic markers for disease resistance and drought tolerance in various crop plants.
2. This technique helps in reducing the time required to develop new varieties of crop plants.
3. It can be used to decipher the host-pathogen relationships in crops.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
At present, scientists can determine the arrangement
or relative positions of genes or DNA sequences on a
chromosome. How does this knowledge benefit us?
1. It is possible to know the pedigree of livestock.
2. It is possible to understand the causes of all
human diseases.
3. It is possible to develop disease-resistant animal
breeds. [2011 - I]
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans
(d) Human Genome Project is NOT at all limited to
only genetic diseases. There are some 30K genes and
the genome sequence would provide great help to
build the tools to conquer diseases. Here we must note
that all diseases have a genetic component, whether
inherited (genetic) or resulting from the body’s
response to environmental stresses like viruses or
toxins. The successes of the HGP have even enabled
researchers to pinpoint errors in genes–the smallest
units of heredity–that cause or contribute to disease.
Thus second statement stands correc
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UPSC 2017
The main advantage of the parliamentary form of government is that
(a) the executive and legislature work independently.
(b) it provides continuity of policy and is more efficient.
(c) the executive remains responsible to the legislature.
(d) the head of the government cannot be changed without election.
UPSC 1987
India has Parliamentary democracy system because
(a) Members of the Lok Sabha are elected by the public
(b) Council of Ministers is responsible to the Legislature
(c) Of distribution of power between the Centre and the States
(d) Of a single constitutional framework
___________________________________________________________________________
UPSC 2017
With reference to the difference between the culture of Rigvedic Aryans and Indus Valley people, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Rigvedic Aryans used the coat of mail and helmet in warfare whereas the people of Indus Valley Civilization did not leave any evidence of using them.
2. Rigvedic Aryans knew gold, silver and copper whereas Indus Valley people knew only copper and iron.
3. Rigvedic Aryans had domesticated the horse whereas there is no evidence of Indus Valley people having been aware of this animal.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Below question from previous year paper eliminates the second statement
UPSC 1985
Which of the following was not known to Indus Valley people ? [1985]
(a) Silver
(b) Copper
(c) Iron
(d) Bronze
Answer C
UPSC 1987
Metals known to Indus Valley Civilisation
were
(a) Gold, copper, silver but not iron
(b) Silver, iron, bronze but not gold
(c) Iron, copper, gold but not silver
(d) Zinc, silver, iron but not gold.
A
Which of the following characterizes / characterize the
people of Indus Civilization? [2013 - I]
1. They possessed great palaces and temples.
2. They worshipped both male and female deities.
3. They employed horse-drawn chariots in warfare.
Select the correct statement/statements using the codes
given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None of the statements given above is correct
(b) Indus valley people did not possess great palaces
and temples rather the civilization was noted for its
cities built of brick, roadside drainage system and
multistoried houses.
Indus valley people were peace loving. They were
never engaged in any war. However speculations have
been rife that some tectonic forces destroyed the
civilization. Some historians are of the view that
invasion of Aryans, sea level changes, earthquakes
might have brought the civilization to its end therefore
people employing horse drawn chariots in warfare is
not true. Moreover, Indus valley seals show swastika,
animals which is suggestive of their religious beliefs.
In view of large number of figurines found in Indus
valley, some scholars believe they worshipped mother
goddess symbolizing fertility. They worshipped a
father God who might be a progenitor of the race and
was a probably a prototype of Siva as the Lord of the
Animals.
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UPSC 2017
From the ecological point of view, which one of the following assumes importance in being a good link between the Eastern Ghats and the Western Ghats?
(a) Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve
(b) Nallamala Forest
(c) Nagarhole National Park
(d) Seshachalam Biosphere Reserve
Answer.a
[Sathyamangalam forest range is a significant wildlife corridor in the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve between the Western Ghats and the rest of the Eastern Ghats and a genetic link between the four other protected areas which it adjoins, including the Billigiriranga Swamy Temple Wildlife Sanctuary, Sigur Plateau, Mudumalai National Park and Bandipur National Park.]
Which of the following hills are found where the
Eastern Ghats and the Western Ghats meet? [2008]
(a) Anamalai Hills (b) Cardamom Hills
(c) Nilgiri Hills (d) Shevaroy Hills
(c) Nilgiri hills are at the junction of the eastern and
western ghats of the Sahayadri hills. The heights of
the hills range varies between 2,280 and 2,290 metres.
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UPSC 2017
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC)?
1. It decides the RBI's benchmark interest rates.
2. It is a 12-member body including the Governor of RBI and is reconstituted every year.
3. It functions under the chairmanship of the Union Finance Minister.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
Answer. a
UPSC 1989
The‘Interest Rate Policy’ is a component of
(a) Fiscal Policy
(b) Monetary Policy
(c) Trade Policy
(d)Direct Control
B
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UPSC 2017
Who among the following was/were associated with the introduction of Ryotwari Settlement in India during the British rule?
1. Lord Cornwallis
2. Alexander Read
3. Thomas Munro
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
UPSC 1988
Whichone of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched? [1988]
(a) Holt Machenzie Mahalvari settlement in
Northern India
(b) Lord Cornwallis Subsidiary system
(c) Lord Ripon Local Self-Government
(d)Thomas Munro Ryotwari settlement
B
Once you know munro was associated [In 1819, he was appointed governor] Automatically lord corn Cornwallis rules out of the equation ] There was a considerable gap between their tenure .
[Cornwallis, was appointed in February 1786 - He died in 1805]
By a regulation in 1793, the District Collector was
deprived of his judicial powers and made the
collecting agent only. What was the reason for such a
regulation ? [2010]
(a) Lord Cornwallis felt that the District Collector's
efficiency of revenue collection would enormously
increase without the burden of additional work
(b) Lord Cornwallis felt that judicial power should
compulsorily be in the hands of Europeans while
Indians can be given the job of revenue collection
in the districts
(c) Lord Cornwallis was alarmed at the extent of
power concentrated in the District Collector and
felt that such absolute power was undesirable in
one person
(d) The judicial work demanded a deep knowledge
of India and a good training in law and Lord
Cornwallis felt that District Collector should be
only a revenue collector
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UPSC 2017
Consider the following statements:
With reference to the Constitution of India, the Directive Principles of State Policy constitute limitations upon
1. legislative function.
2. executive function.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer.c
According to the Constitution of India, which of the
following are fundamental for the governance of the
country? [2013 - I]
(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Fundamental Duties
(c) Directive Principles of State Policy
(d) Fundamental Rights and Fundamental Duties
(c) Directive Principles of State Policy are guidelines
to the central and State government of India to be kept
in mind while framing laws and policies. DPSPs aim to
create social and economic conditions under which the
citizens can lead a good life. They also aim to establish
social and economic democracy through a welfare state.
They act as a check on the government. It is a yardstick
in the hands of the people to measure the performance
of the government. It shall be the duty of the state to
apply these principles in making laws.
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UPSC 2017
In the context of mitigating the impending global warming due to anthropogenic emissions of carbon dioxide, which of the following can be the potential sites for carbon sequestration?
1. Abandoned and uneconomic coal seams
2. Depleted oil and gas reservoirs
3. Subterranean deep saline formations
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer. d
Question on carbon sequestration in 2012 prelims
Consider the following agricultural practices :
[2012 - I]
1. Contour bunding
2. Relay cropping
3. Zero tillage
In the context of global climate change, which of the
above helps/help in carbon sequestration/storage in
the soil?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None of them
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UPSC 2017
Consider the following statements:
1. In India, the Himalayas are spread over five States only.
2. Western Ghats are spread over five States only.
3. Pulicat Lake is spread over two States only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
UPSC 2016
‘Gadgil Committee Report’ and ‘Kasturirangan Committee Report’, sometimes seen in the news, are related to
(a) Constitutional reforms
(b) Ganga Action Plan
(c) Linking of rivers
(d) Protection of Western Ghats
Ans. D
Explanation:
Direct and Factual
Why the question Came:
A Central government order on 5 September, 2015, had asked
the six states that share the Western Ghats to ban all
‘destructive’ activities. This was as suggestion of the Gadgil
Committee. Also, the report along with Rangarajan
Committee Report gained much more importance due to the
recent Kerala elections. UPSC loves the Western Ghats
Sources:
The Hindu & Other Newspapers
http://www.newindianexpress.com/states/karnataka/ESAStatus-to-Western-Ghats-Vindicates-GadgilReport/2015/09/15/article3028957.ece
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UPSC 2017
In the context of Indian history, the principle of `Dyarchy (diarchy)' refers to
(a) Division of the central legislature into two houses.
(b) Introduction of double government i.e., Central and State governments.
(c) Having two sets of rulers; one in London and another in Delhi.
(d) Division of the subjects delegated to the provinces into two categories.
UPSC 2010
With reference to Simon Commission's recommendations, which one of the following
statements is correct ? [2010]
(a) It recommended the replacement of diarchy with
responsible government in the provinces
(b) It proposed the setting up of interprovincial
council under the home department
(c) It suggested the abolition of bicameral legislature
at the centre
(d) It recommended the creation of Indian Police
Service with a provision for increased pay and
allowances for British recruits as compared to
Indian recruits
UPSC 2013
The people of India agitated against the arrival of
Simon Commission because [2013 - I]
(a) Indians never wanted the review of the working
of the Act of 1919
(b) Simon Commission recommended the abolition
of Dyarchy (Diarchy) in the Provinces
(c) there was no Indian member in the Simon
Commission
(d) the Simon Commission suggested the partition
of the country
UPSC 1995
What is the correct sequence of the following events?
1. The Lucknow Pact [1995]
2. The Introduction on Dyarchy
3. The Rowlatt Act
4. The Partition of Bengal
Codes:
(a) 1, 3, 2, 4 (b) 4, 1, 3, 2
(c) 1, 2, 3, 4 (d) 4, 3, 2
Which one of the following is not a feature of the
Government of India Act of 1935? [2000]
(a) Diarchy at the Centre as well as in the provinces
(b) a bicameral legislature
(c) provincial autonomy
(d) an All-India federation
[1997]
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer
using the codes given below the lists: [1997]
List-I List-II
A. Butler Committee 1. Jallianwala Bagh
Report massacre
B. Hurtog Committee 2. Relationship between
Report the Indian State
and the Paramount
Power
C. Hunter Inquiry 3. Working of Dyarchy as
Committee Report laid down in the
Montague-Chelmsford
Reforms
D. Muddiman 4. The growth of education
Committee Report in British India and
potentialities of its
further progress
Codes:
(a) A – 3; B – 2; C – 1; D – 4
(b) A – 1; B – 4; C – 2; D – 3
(c) A – 2; B – 1; C – 3; D – 4
(d) A – 2; B – 4; C – 1; D – 3
Explantion
(d) Butler Committee - Relation between Indian
states & paramount power
Hurtog Committee - Growth of British India
education-its effects
Hunter Commission - Jallianwalabagh massacre
Muddiman Committee - Working of Diarchy as in
Montague Chelmsford reforms
[2002]
With reference to colonial period of Indian history,
match List-I (Person) with List-II (Event) and select
the correct answer using the codes given below the
lists: [2002]
List-I (Person) List-II (Events)
A. Macdonald 1. Doctrine of Lapse
B. Linlithgo 2. Communal Award
C. Dalhousie 3. August Offer
D. Chelmsford 4. Dyarchy
Codes:
(a) A – 3; B – 2; C – 1; D – 4
(b) A – 3; B – 2; C – 4; D – 1
(c) A – 2; B – 3; C – 1; D – 4
(d) A – 2; B – 3; C – 4; D – 1
answer(c) The Communal Award was announced by
British PM, Ramsay McDonald in August 1932.
August Offer - 1940; Under Doctrine of Lapse,
Dalhousie annexed Satara, Jaitpur, Sambalpur,
Udaipur, Jhansi, Nagpur and Awadh. Government of
India Act 1919, introduced diarchy during the
viceroyality of Chelmsford
(b) Provincial autonomy replaced diarchy. The
Governor could refuse assent to bill, promulgate
ordinances, and enact governor's acts. Statement 3 is
incorrect as separate electorates based on communal
representation persisted in the GIA, 1935.
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