Polity: Rights issues
Q. Forest Rights Act, 2006 provides which of the following rights to the Forest dwelling scheduled tribes?
- right to homestead
- right to grazing land
- right over timber forest produce
Answer Codes:
- Only 1 and 2
- Only 2 and 3
- Only 1 and 3
- All of them
Hint: Keeping in mind the development vs environment protection- think what would have been given? right over timber forest produce or right over non-timber forest produce?
Q. There was a traditional convention where a person whose are rights are infringed is only supposed to knock the doors of a court on the issue of fundamental rights and it was done away by Justice Bhagawati. What was the basis of this concept?
- PIL
- Amicus Curie
- Locus Standi
- Right to court
Hint: Justic Bhagwati had ruled that he had ruled there was no need for a person to have any locus standi (the right or capacity to bring an action or to appear in a court) to knock the doors of a court on the issue of fundamental rights.
Q. Which one of the following is not an International Humans Rights Treaty? (CDS-2018-i)
- International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights
- Convention on the Elimination of All forms of Discrimination against Women
- Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilites
- Declaration on the Right to Development
Hint: Governance in India by M.Laxmikanth: page 25: The International Bill of Human Rights has been further supplemented by various other international treaties, conventions and declarations. They are usually regarded as “human rights instruments”. The important among them are as follows….
- A is there: Convention on the Elimination of All Forms of Discrimination Against Women (1979)
- D is there: Declaration on the Right to Development (1986)
- C is there: Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities (2006).
Q. Which of the following are the functions of the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC)? (CDS-2018-i)
- Inquiry at its own initiative on the violation of human rights
- Inquiry on a petition presented to it by a victim
- Visit to jails to study the condition of the inmates
- Undertaking and promoting research in the field of human rights
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- 1 and 2 only
- 2, 3 and 4 only
- 1, 3 and 4 only
- 1, 2, 3 and 4
Polity: Legislature related
Q. Find similarity / similarities between Rajya Sabha and Legislative Council (Vidhan Parishad) :
- Both entities are immune to dissolution.
- In both entities, one-third of the members retire every second year
- In both entities, elections are indirect.
Answer Codes:
- Only 1 and 2
- Only 2 and 3
- Only 1 and 3
- All of them
Hint: Who can vote in the Vidhan Parishad elections, and are those voters elected?
Q. Which one of the following Amendments to the Constitution of India has prescribed that the Council of Ministers shall not exceed 15 percent of total number for members of the House of the People or Legislative Assembly in the States? (CDS-2018-i)
- 91st Amendment
- 87th Amendment
- 97th Amendment
- 90th Amendment
- 87: readjustment and rationalisation of territorial constituencies in the states on the basis of the population figures of 2001 census and not 1991 census.
- 90: maintaining the erstwhile representation of the Scheduled Tribes and non- Scheduled Tribes in the Assam legislative assembly from the Bodoland Territorial Areas District
- 91: 15% minister limit
- 97: Gave a constitutional status and protection to cooperative societies: It made the right to form co-operative societies a fundamental right (Article 19). It included a new Directive Principle of State Policy on promotion of co-operative societies (Article 43-B).
Q. Which one among the following States of India has the largest number of seats in its Legislative Assembly? (CDS-2018-i)
- West Bengal
- Bihar
- Madhya Pradesh
- Tamil Nadu
Hint: Lakshmikanth (5th ed. ) Chapter-6 State Legislature
- West bengal- 294 seats
- Bihar-224
- MadhyaPradesh-230
- Tamilnadu-234
Polity: Election related
Q. Why is the Prime Minister in India not directly elected by the people? (NCERT Class7 Ch.12)
- Since the Prime Minister is appointed by the President there is no need for it.
- Direct election of the Prime Minister will involve lot of expenditure on election.
- In a Parliamentary democracy only the leader of the majority party in the Lok Sabha can become the Prime Minister.
- All of the above.
Hint: While all statements sound reasonable, but which is the most ‘compelling’ reason? Think!
Q. Which of the following reason(s) make Proportional Representation system unsuitable for India’s Lok Sabha and Vidhan Sabha elections? (NCERT)
- Common citizens will have difficulty in understanding it
- Common citizens will have difficulty in holding the elected representative accountable for the woos in their geographical constituency.
- PR based election may not give a a stable government in a parliamentary system like India.
Answer Codes:
- Only 1 and 2
- Only 2 and 3
- Only 1 and 3
- All of them
Hint: NCERT Class11: Indian Constitution @Work, ch10: all statements are legit.
Q. In the context of elections in India, which one of the following is the correct full form of VVPAT? (CDS-2018-i)
- Voter Verifiable Poll Audit Trail
- Voter Verifing Paper Audit Trail
- Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail
- Voter Verifiable Paper Account Trail
Hint: India 2018 ch. 3 polity:
- VVPAT: Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail
- EPIC: Electors’ Photo Identity Cards
Q. A person is disqualified for being chosen as, and for being, a Member of either House of the Parliament if the person(CDS-2018-i)
- holds any office of profit under Government of India or the Government of any State other than an office declared by the Parliament by law not to disqualify its holder
- is an undischarged insolvent
- is so disqualified under the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution of India
- is of unsound mind and stands so declared by a competent Court
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- 1, 2 and 4 only
- 1, 2, 3 and 4
- 3 and 4 only
- 1, 2 and 3 only
Hint:
- 1, 2 and 4 are right. [Ref: Laxmikanth (5th Ed.)Chapter 22 Parliament]
- Anti-defection: Person shall be disqualified from “being” Member of either house. But does that disqualify him from being “chosen” as Member in the subsequent elections?
Q. According to the Election Commission of India, in order to be recognized as a ‘National Party’, a political party must be treated as a recognized political party in how many States? (CDS-2018-i)
- At least two States
- At least three States
- At least four States
- At least five States
Hint: Laxmikanth (5th Ed.)Chapter 67 Political Parties At present (2016), a party is recognised as a national party if any of the following conditions is fulfilled:
- If it secures six per cent of valid votes polled in any four or more states at a general election to the Lok Sabha or to the legislative assembly; and, in addition, it wins four seats in the Lok Sabha from any state or states; or
- If it wins two per cent of seats in the Lok Sabha at a general election; and these candidates are elected from three states; or
- If it is recognised as a state party in four states.
Polity: Amendments related
Q. Under which one of the following Amendment Acts was Sikkim admitted into the Union of India?: (CDS-2018-i)
- 35th
- 36th
- 37th
- 38th
- Thirty-Fifth Amendment Act, 1974: Terminated the protectorate status of Sikkim and conferred on it the status of an associate state of the Indian Union. The Tenth Schedule was added laying down the terms and conditions of association of Sikkim with the Indian Union.
- Thirty-Sixth Amendment Act, 1975: Made Sikkim a full-fledged State of the Indian Union and omitted the Tenth Schedule.
- Thirty-Seventh Amendment Act, 1975: Provided legislative assembly and council of ministers for the Union Territory of Arunachal Pradesh.
- Thirty-Eighth Amendment Act, 1975: 1) Made the declaration of emergency by the president non-justiciable. 2) Made the promulgation of ordinances by the president, governors and administrators of union territories non-justiciable. 3) Empowered the president to declare different proclamations of national emergency on different grounds simultaneously.
Q. Which one of the following statements in respect of the States of India is not correct?: (CDS-2018-i)
- States in India cannot have their own Constitutions.
- The State of Jammu and Kashmir has its own Constitution.
- States in India do not have the right to secede from the Union of India.
- The maximum number of members in the Council of Ministers of Delhi can be 15 percent of the total number of members in the Legislative Assembly.
Hint: 69
th Constitutional amendment provided for designating it as the National Capital Territory of Delhi. This amendment also provided for the creation of a 70-member legislative assembly and a 7-member council of ministers for Delhi (=10%). [Ref:
Laxmikanth (5th Ed.)Appendix VI Constitutional Amendments:]
Polity: Bodies
Q. The urban local governance is dealt by which of the following ministries?
- Ministry of Urban Development.
- Ministry of Home affairs.
- Ministry of Defence.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
- 1 and 2 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
Hint:
- MoUD with Municipal corporations etc.
- MoHa with Municipal bodies of Union territories
- MoD with the Cantonment Boards.
Q. Which of the following statements about Attorney General of India is/are not correct? (CDS-2018-i)
- He is the first Law Officer of the Government of India.
- He is entitled to the privileges of a Member of the Parliament.
- He is a whole-time counsel for the Government.
- He must have the same qualifications as are required to be a judge of the Supreme Court.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- 1, 2 and 3
- 2 and 4
- 3 only
- 1 only
Hint:
- Laxmikanth ch.50 opening line says he is the highest law officer in the country, Laxmikanth didnot use the word “first law officer”, but that doesn’t make the statement wrong. because DD Basu Page 203 has verbatim used the phrase: “Attorney General is the first law officer of the Government of India.”
- Statement 3: Not a full time counsel, nor a government servant. (So, he can practice on private basis.)
International Relations
Q. Correct Statements about BRICS summits (Inspired from CDS-2018-i)
- First BRICS Summit, after the inclusion of South Africa, was held at Sanya, China
- Ninth BRICS summit (2017) was held at Xiamen, China with the motto BRICS: Stronger Partnership for a Brighter Future.
- Tenth BRICS summit (2018) will be held at Durban, South Africa.
Answer Codes:
- Only 1 and 2
- Only 2 and 3
- Only 1 and 3
- All of them
Hint: Initially it was conceived as BRIC. South Africa joined BRIC-S in 2010. The first summit after Africa’s inclusion was held at Sanya in China with the theme “Broad Vision, Shared Prosperity”- It was BRICS 3rd Summit overall. Tenth Summit (2018, September) will be held at Johannesburg, South Africa.
UPSC examiner only asked 1st statement in CDS-2018 (Where was the first BRIC summit held after inclusion of S.Africa), But as such too much factual GK about an outdated event. So, In real exam, better to leave it than test your luck through guessmastergiriTM
Q. Which one of the following statements is not correct? (CDS-2018-i)
- India joined MTCR in 2016.
- India submitted a formal application for membership of the NSG in 2016.
- India proposed the Comprehensive Convention on International Terrorism in 1996.
- The Commonwealth Heads of Government Meeting (CHOGM) was held in 2016 at Malta.
Hint: 2015’s CHOGM was held at Malta. And since it’s biennial event (occurring every second year) so next meeting ought to have happened in 2017, but it actually occurred in 2018, at London, UK. Therefore no CHOGM meeting occurred in 2016.
Q. In October 2017, India sent its first shipment of wheat to Afghanistan as a part of commitment made by the Government of India to supply 1.1 million tonnes of wheat to that country on grant basis. The shipment was sent through (CDS-2018-i)
- Iran
- Pakistan
- Tajikistan
- China
Hint: The shipment was sent through Chabahar port in Iran. Ref:
TheHindu
Q. Which one of the following became a part of China in 1997 following the principle of ‘one country, two systems?:(CDS-2018-i)
- Tibet
- Hong Kong
- Xinjiang
- Inner Mongolia
Hint: Hong Kong was handed back to China by England in 1997. Recently 20 years got completed of that event. In Hong Kong, Xinjiang, Tibet & Taiwan, China follows different politico-economic system than Mainland hence it is often referred as one country two system. Ref:
TheEconomist.
Defense and Space
Q. ‘SAMPRITI-2017’ is a joint military exercise between armed forces of India and (CDS-2018-i)
- Bhutan
- Bangladesh
- Pakistan
- Myanmar
Hint:
- Seventh Indo-Bangladesh joint exercise SAMPRITI was held at Counter Insurgency and Jungle Warfare School, Vairengte in Mizoram. http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=173614
- And speaking of the keyword “Sampriti”: “Tithi Bhojan” is a concept designed to ensure greater public participation under the Mid Day Meal Programme being followed in Gujarat. In order to bring in greater community participation, local communities are encouraged to celebrate important family events viz., birth of a child, success in exam, inauguration of new house, etc. by contributing to the mid day meal served in the local schools. The concept has been adopted by different states with local nomenclatures like ‘ Sampriti Bhojan ’ in Assam, ‘Dham’ in Himachal Pradesh, ‘Sneh Bhojan’ in Maharashtra, ‘Shalegagi Naavu Neevu’ in Karnataka, ‘Anna Dhanam’ in Puducherry, ‘Priti Bhoj’ in Punjab and ‘Utsav Bhoj’ in Rajasthan. (REF: India Yearbook 2018)
Q. Consider the following statements about Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP): (CDS-2018-i)
- ITBP was raised in 1962.
- ITBP is basically a mountain raised force.
- ITBP replaced Assam rifles in Sikkim and Arunachal Pradesh in 2004-05 for border guarding duty.
- ITBP presently has 52 service battalions.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- 1, 2 and 4 only
- 3 and 4 only
- 1, 2,3 and 4
- 1, 2 and 3 only
Hint: All are correct. India 2018 Yearbook- Defence Chapter-9 and
ITBP’s own webpage. Although such Factual historic questions about defense forces are unlikely in the Civil services.
Q. Which of the following about the role of Indian Coast Guard is/are correct? (CDS-2018-i)
- Indian Coast Guard has been entrusted with the offshore security coordination authority
- Lead intelligence agency for coastal and sea border
- Coastal security in territorial waters
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- 1 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
- 1 and 2 only
- 3 only
Hint: All are correct. India 2018 Yearbook- Defence Chapter-9.
Q. Which one of the following is India’s first indigenously designed and developed long-range subsonic cruise missile which can be deployed from multiple platforms? (CDS-2018-i)
- Astra
- Akash
- Nirbhay
- Shankhnaad
Hint:: ‘NIRBHAY’ – India’s first indigenously designed and developed Long Range Sub-Sonic Cruise Missile by DRDO, which can be deployed from multiple platforms was successfully tested in November 2017. Ref
India Yearbook 2018 Diary of Events.
Q. Which one of the following statements with regard to Antrix Corporation Limited is correct? (CDS-2018-i)
- It is a commercial arm of the Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion.
- It is under the administrative control of the Department of Space.
- It is under the administrative control of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
- It is a commercial arm of the department of Science and Technology.
Hint: Antrix Corporation, the commercial arm of the Department of Space, is marketing the Indian space products and services in the global market. Under commercial contracts with Antrix, 209 international customer satellites have been successfully launched by PSLV so far.
India Yearbook 2018 Ch. 25 Scientific Developments.
Q. Which one of the following is not a correct ascending order of commissioned ranks in the defence forces of India?:(CDS-2018-i)
- Lieutenant, Captain, Major, Lieutenant Colonel, Colonel, Brigadier, Major General, Lieutenant General, General
- Flying Officer, Flight Lieutenant, Squadron Leader, Wing Commander, Group Captain, Air Commodore, Air Vice Marshal, Air Marshal, Air Chief Marshal
- Flying Officer, Flight Lieutenant, Squadron Leader, Group Captain, Wing Commander, Air Commodore, Air Vice Marshal, Air Marshal, Air Chief Marshal
- Lieutenant, Lieutenant, Lieutenant Commander, Commander, Captain, Commodore, Rear Admiral, Vice Admiral, Admiral
